AskGuru Q&A Community

Question

Property Legal Advice

Asked by Anonymous 23 Jul 2018

Is buyer to subsale property liable to refund for unutilized sinking fund to seller? It seems like buyer has to bare for seller's past payment.

1203 views

Upvote Upvoted

1 Answer

Previously Asked Questions

<en>David</en> <en>Wong Lai Kwong</en> · Answer 1 · 2018-07-26T18:13:30+08:00

<en>David</en> <en>Wong Lai Kwong</en>

Replied 26 Jul 2018

All relevant bills pertaining to the property are apportioned accordingly between the Seller and the Buyer basing on the handover of vacant possession date. Any payments overpaid or paid in advance by the Seller may be claimed back from the Buyer Read More

Upvote Upvoted

AskGuru Q&A Community

1 Answer

Still looking for answers?

Get advice from our community of experts

AskGuru Q&A Community

Want this question answered?

1 Answer

Still looking for answers?

Get advice from our community of experts