Asked by g***@gmail.com
My house is solely in my name.
The house loan is in two names - mine and my husband’s.
The MRTA is in one name - husband’s name.
- Do I need his consent to sell the house?
- Can he sell the house at any time?
- In the event of a divorce, does he have any claim on the ownership of the house?
The house loan is in two names - mine and my husband’s.
The MRTA is in one name - husband’s name.
- Do I need his consent to sell the house?
- Can he sell the house at any time?
- In the event of a divorce, does he have any claim on the ownership of the house?
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